As I was reading the Bible this morning I ran across John 7 and was reminded of a friend who talked to me a few months ago about this passage. He had a discussion with someone else who couldn't trust the bible because one Bible had verse 8 with the word 'yet' and one without it. But, is that a reason not to trust the Bible?
Here is verse 8, with the word in question highlighted: "You go to the Feast. I am not yet going upto this Feast, because for me the right time has not yet come."
Just on the surface, including or not including the 'yet' does not change the meaning. 'Yet' is a word indicating time, (not whether or not Jesus was going, but when), and the later part of the sentence clarifies that in stating the "right time" has not yet come.
The footnotes on this verse do indicate that some earlier manuscripts do include 'yet' and some don't, so it's no surpise that we have different Bible translations that include or don't include the word.
If you wanted to spend a little more time evaluating this you could look at the context of this verse, the surrounding verses are completely consistent with this. You can look at John 7.
In verse 6, he again states "the right time for me has not yet come". Verse 9 says, "Having said this, he stayed in Galilee." indicating that he meant what he said, it wasn't his time. Verse 10 reinforces the time issue by saying "after his brothers left", (captain obvious says 'after' is a word indicating time). It also tells that "he went also" and his purpose in delaying his time was to go "in secret."
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